CMS II Final: Rheum

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209 Terms

1
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which autoantibody (auto-ab) is commonly used for dx of lupus?

ANA

results are reported in titers: 1:80 is positive but >1:320 is strongly positive for autoimmune dz

2
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which auto-ab is best for dx of RA?

Anti-CCP → may develop years before joint sx

3
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what would the ESR estimate be for a 64 year old woman?

64/2 = 32 + 10 = 42

4
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what are the 3 Cs for dx of septic arthritis?

cell count/diff

crystals

C&S plus NAATs (for chlamydia)

5
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which dx has the classic triad of dermatitis, migratory polyarthritis, and tenosynovitis?

disseminated gonococcal infection

6
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which joint is MC affected by disseminated gonococcal infection?

knee >>> hand + wrist >>> hip

rarely spine

7
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what is the tx for uncomplicated gonococcal infection?

IM rocephin

tx partners!!!

8
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what is the tx for disseminated gonococcal infection?

IV rocephin + doxy OR azithro (if NAAT positive)

tx partners!!

9
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what is the first line tx for non-gonococcal arthritis?

vanco (bc MC staph aureus)

assoc. w IVDA

10
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If a patient presents with bell's palsy and is found to have Lyme dz, how should you treat?

IV rocephin → neuro/cardio sx = always treat w IV

bell's = MC neuro sx

11
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how many times should you give IV rocephin for Lyme?

NO MORE THAN 2X

12
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what is the confirmatory test for Lyme?

western blot

after ELISA

13
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pt presents with target-like rash that began 3 days ago after a hike. how should you treat?

lyme → doxy x3 weeks

erythro if preg

14
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what is the primary regulator of extracellular calcium?

PTH → secreted in response to hypocalcemia

15
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what is the action of PTH in the kidneys?

increased tubular resorption of calcium and stimulates kidneys to make activated form of Vit D

16
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what is the active form of vitamin D?

1,25-(OH) vit D3

25 (OH) vit D2 = stored

17
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where is calcium released from during a rapid response to hypocalcemia?

lacunar spaces

if the stimulus continues → osteoclasts resorb bone

18
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what is the first line tx for osteoporosis?

Bisphosphonates → alendronate, risedronate, ibandronate, zoledronic acid

"-dronate"

19
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which drug can cause irritation or burning of the esophagus?

bisphosphonates

also causes:

- abd/MSK pain

- osteonecrosis of jaw

- sub-trochanteric fx with >5 yr use

20
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what is the most serious consequence of osteoporosis?

hip fx → often lead to death bc of comorbidities

vertebrae fx is MC

21
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what are some risk factors for osteoporosis?

smoking and alcohol (esp in men)

there are others but she emphasized these

22
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which SERM is approved for treatment of postmenopausal osteoporosis?

raloxifene → risk of DVT!

23
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which type of osteoporosis is postmenopausal? Senile?

primary:

type 1 = postmenopausal (MC)

type 2 = senescence

24
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which drugs are used to up-regulate osteoblasts and "build bone" in pts with osteoporosis?

anaBolics → teriparatide, abaloparatide, PTH, romosozumab

25
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what is the black box warning for anabolics?

osteosarcoma

romosozumab specific = CV dz

26
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what test is used to measure bone mineral density of the femoral neck to determine 10 year probability of fractures?

FRAX

27
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which bones does a DEXA scan measure?

hips and lumbar (L1-L4)

gold standard for osteoporosis

<p>hips and lumbar (L1-L4)</p><p>gold standard for osteoporosis</p>
28
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what does a T score of -1 indicate? -2.5?

-1 = osteopenia

-2.5 = osteoporosis

29
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is it okay to perform an arthrocentesis on an uncontrolled diabetic?

NO

dont do it in:

- overlying cellulitis, wound, bacteremia

- neuropathic joint

- coagulopathies

- prosthetics (...??)

- inaccessible joints (duh...?)

- lack of response previously

30
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what dx is defined by compression of the neurovascular structures in the area just above the 1st rib and behind the clavicle?

thoracic outlet syndrome (TOS)

31
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what is the MC facet of TOS?

brachial plexus (95%)

MCC by anomalous cervical rib

32
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which dx shows 3 contiguous lumbar vertebra involved with NORMAL disc height?

DISH = ossification of the longitudinal ligaments of the spine that produce syndesmophytes

<p>DISH = ossification of the longitudinal ligaments of the spine that produce syndesmophytes</p>
33
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what comorbidities are often seen with DISH?

T2DM!!!!!

metaolic syndrome

also more common in men

34
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what is the MC inflammatory dz of the axial skeleton?

ankylosing spondylitis

enthesopathy common

35
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what is the hallmark of AS? Who is it seen in?

hallmark = upward migration of sacroilitis → get MRI

M>W; late teen/early 20s

36
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what are the s/sx of AS?

iPAIN:

i = insidious onset

P = pain in PM/early AM

A = age <45

I = improves w exercise

N = no improvement w rest

37
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what lab findings are assoc. with AS?

increased ESR/CRP

+ HLAB27 (DOES NOT always mean positive for AS)

bamboo spine = late finding

<p>increased ESR/CRP</p><p>+ HLAB27 (DOES NOT always mean positive for AS)</p><p>bamboo spine = late finding</p>
38
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what is the first line tx for AS?

NSAIDs → Indocin

2nd line = TNF inhibitors

3rd = IL 12/23, IL-17

4th = JAK inhibitors

39
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what is the first line tx for severe AS?

TNF inhibitors → adalimumab, certolizumab, etanercept, infliximab, golimumab

40
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what happens if you use PO steroids for tx of psoriatic arthritis (PA)?

life-threatening rebound flare

41
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what should you do if a male pt has new onset PA or reactive arthritis?

test for HIV

42
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what are the subtypes of PA?

- asymmetric oligoarthritis with dactylitis (sausage fingers)

- DIP arthritis

- RA-like polyarthritis

- spondylitis

- arthritis mutilans

- HIV related

<p>- asymmetric oligoarthritis with dactylitis (sausage fingers)</p><p>- DIP arthritis</p><p>- RA-like polyarthritis</p><p>- spondylitis</p><p>- arthritis mutilans</p><p>- HIV related</p>
43
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what s/sx are assoc with PA?

- generalized fatigue

- TTP, pain, swelling

- swollen fingers/toes

- stiff, pain, throbbing

- decreased ROM

- morning stiff/tired

- nail changes***

- conjunctivitis

<p>- generalized fatigue</p><p>- TTP, pain, swelling</p><p>- swollen fingers/toes</p><p>- stiff, pain, throbbing</p><p>- decreased ROM</p><p>- morning stiff/tired</p><p>- nail changes***</p><p>- conjunctivitis</p>
44
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which dx has the pencil in cup deformity?

PA

<p>PA</p>
45
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which dx has the triad of: conjunctivitis, urethritis, oligoarthritis?

reactive arthritis (Reiter's)

can't see can't pee can't climb a tree

46
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which dx is assoc. with keratoderma blenorrhagicum and balanitis?

reactive arthritis

<p>reactive arthritis</p>
47
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what is a common history finding for reactive arthritis?

hx traveler's diarrhea

reactive arthritis = autoimmune condition that develops in response to infection (GI or GU)

48
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which dx is often seen in women who care for sick children, mothers, and daycare workers?

parvovirus B-19 → MC viral arthritis → "fifths" or "slapped cheeks"

49
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IgM titers are _____ in acute parvovirus

HIGH

dx resolves in 2-4 weeks

50
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in which dx may you see a transient generalized rash, small polyarticular joint swelling, and symmetrical pain?

parvo

51
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what arthritis is often seen in IBD and GI pathology?

enteropathic arthritis → bowel related arthritis

52
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what are risk factors for gout?

men >50

DM, HTN, HLD

thiazides

beer

fructose corn syrup

<p>men &gt;50</p><p>DM, HTN, HLD</p><p>thiazides</p><p>beer</p><p>fructose corn syrup</p>
53
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which dx shows up as yellow negatively birefringent, long, needle-like crystals?

gout → uric acid crystals

blue when perpendicular

54
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why is gout more common in men?

estrogen is uricosuric

(so is high dose ASA)

55
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which dx shows up as bite-like erosions on XR?

gout

56
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which dx shows up as blue positively birefringent rod or rhomboid shaped crystals?

pseudogout (CPPD)

57
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which dx is secondary CPPD associated with?

1. OA (MC)

2. hyperparathyroidism

3. hemochromatosis

4. hyperthyroidism

58
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which dx shows chondrocalcinosis, subchondral cysts, and degenerative changes at 2nd/3rd MCPs?

CPPD

signs of OA BUT includes shoulders and MCPs which is uncommon in OA

<p>CPPD</p><p>signs of OA BUT includes shoulders and MCPs which is uncommon in OA</p>
59
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what is the tx for osteomyelitis?

IV vanco x6 weeks

60
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what is the best study for dx of osteomyelitis?

MRI

61
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what is the order of tx for ACUTE gouty flares?

1. NSAIDs (Indocin)

2. colchicine

3. steroids

don't use NSAIDs in ppl with PUD

don't use steroids in DM

62
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what is the order of treatment for chronic gout (>2 flares/yr, tophi, kidney stones)?

1. ULT (urate-lowering therapy) AKA Xanthine oxidase inhibitors (XOIs)→ allopurinol or febuoxstat

2. add uricosurics → probenecid, lesinurad

3. uricase agent

63
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what is given for gout when ULTs are taking effect?

bridge of colchicine or NSAIDs x6 months to avoid flares

64
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what is the target uric acid for chronic gout? what about tophaceous gout?

chronic = <6 mg/dl

tophaceous = <5 mg/dl

65
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which drug is FDA indicated for chronic tophaceous and/or refractory gout?

Pegloticase (Krystexxa)(Savient)

66
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what drug is recommended for chronic gout after failure with XOIs?

Lesinurad (Zurampic) → add to XOIs to get UA <6

67
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what is the target for RA? OA?

RA = synovium

OA = cartilage

68
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how many symptoms are needed for dx of RA?

4/7 x6 weeks (old criteria) --> now just need one large joint or 2+ small joints involved

<p>4/7 x6 weeks (old criteria) --&gt; now just need one large joint or 2+ small joints involved</p>
69
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where does RA affect most?

- C1-C2

- PIP

- MCP

- wrist

spares DIP, 1st CMC, and the rest of the spine

<p>- C1-C2</p><p>- PIP</p><p>- MCP</p><p>- wrist</p><p>spares DIP, 1st CMC, and the rest of the spine</p>
70
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what is the gold standard for tx of RA?

methotrexate (MTX)

71
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what is the #1 COD in RA pts?

ASCVD d/t proinflammatory state

72
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what is the order of treatment for RA?

1. NSAIDs or MTX

2. MTX + TNF

3. MTX +Jak

73
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what are the risks with TNF biologics?

increased risk for infection (esp TB), possible lymphoma/melanoma risk, drug induced lupus

74
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boutonniere deformity and swan neck deformity are associated with ____

RA

75
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what side effects are commonly seen with MTX?

nausea

LFT elevation

mouth sores

rash

diarrhea or loose stools

blood count abnormalities

lung probs

give folic acid!

76
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which dx is associated with +ANA and uveitis in children <16?

juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA)

77
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is hallux valgus or varus more common in RA?

valgus bc the lateral compartment is destroyed first

opposite for OA

78
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what is the wink sign associated with?

RA d/t C1-C2 cord compression

look with open mouth XR view

TMJ = panorex

79
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which type of synoviocyte phagocytoses cell debris and waste inside the joint cavity?

Type A

80
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which type of synoviocyte provides nutrition to the joint?

Type B

81
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what are the risk factors for OA?

- increasing age

- female

- obesity → MC in knee

- trauma/repetitive use

82
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which joints are involved in OA?

- 1st CMC

- DIP (Heberden's nodes)

- PIP (Bouchard's nodes)

- knee

- hips

- lumbar spine

weight bearing joints

83
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which joints are NOT involved in OA?

shoulder

elbow

wrist

foot

ankle

MCP

84
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what is seen on XR in OA?

bony sclerosis, eburnation, osteophytes, loss of cartilage

do standing view bc weight bearing joints affected

85
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which is MC in OA: Varus or valgus?

varus bc destruction starts medially

86
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what is the 1st line tx for OA?

- TOPICAL NSAIDs → then oral

- 2nd line= other analgesics (tylenol)

NO SYSTEMIC STEROIDS EVER

87
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what is the criteria for dx of fibromyalgia?

chronic widespread pain in all 4 quadrants → above and below the waist, left and right sides of body, and in the axial skeleton

>3 months

<p>chronic widespread pain in all 4 quadrants → above and below the waist, left and right sides of body, and in the axial skeleton</p><p>&gt;3 months</p>
88
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what is the 1st line tx for fibromyalgia?

1st = cyclobenzaprine (Flexeril) (muscle relaxant)

NO PAIN MEDS/NSAIDs

89
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what are the first 5 types of collagen?

1 = skin, tendon, bone*

2 = hyaline

3 = blood vessels, parenchymal cells

4 = basement membrane*

5 = smooth muscle

90
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which type of extracellular macromolecule acts as a "multi-purpose glue" and binds extracellular components together?

proteoglycans

91
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which type of extracellular macromolecules are adhesions molecules?

glycoproteins

92
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which cartilage lines the joints?

hyaline

93
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which type of cartilage is found in the C-spine and rib cage?

elastin

94
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what is the enthesis?

connective tissue between tendon or ligament and bone

95
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what are the first line treatments for CRPS in order?

1. analgesics/NSAIDs

2. antidepressants

3. anticonvulsants

96
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who is CRPS common in?

W > M

younger age (<40)

upper extremity MC

follows minor trauma/surgery

97
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which type of CRPS is d/t partial nerve injury?

type 2

type 1 is CNS afferent sympathetic rxn of joints/soft tissue

98
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what is the best test to evaluate for CRPS?

bone scan → use Tc 99 mm

but radiography is initial study

99
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which type of arthritis found in a young population MC affects the knee and is often monoarticular?

septic

knee>>>hand/wrist>>>hip

100
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which dx is defined by abnormal bone remodeling?

Paget's

cardinal features = enlarged skull, tinnitus, bowed legs

<p>Paget's</p><p>cardinal features = enlarged skull, tinnitus, bowed legs</p>